wickedness of pharaohs
Now let's consider the example of the Egyptians and Pharaoh. This is treated in detail later under monotheisms.
The objective here is only to find definitions for "unrighteousness" or "wickedness".
Of course the first issue is slavery, the ultimate "unrighteousness" of pharaoh.
But,
"Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not their's, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years; and also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and afterwards shall they come out with great substance...". Gen. 15:13
This can only mean one thing and one thing only;
The supposed slavery that our Hebrew ancestors suffered in Egypt for four hundred years was incontestably the will of the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob, and the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" who did that, was himself only the slave or the instrument of that will.
It can mean nothing else.
Can it mean God only seeing the future without being able to interfere?
Is the future fixed?
Even if He could interfere but did not since the Hebrews supposedly "had to" live that experience, it still makes Pharaoh the instrument of His will and the future fixed.
No need to remind you that we are in an apprehension of creation by design.
What happens now to the "ultimate unrighteousness" of the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" who was/were only the instrument of the will of the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob, who "designed" the "bondage" Himself?
The LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob had programmed it to happen.
It's not in this accusation of enslavement that we will find any definition for "unrighteousness".
Our quest for definitions continues.
The second candidate to "wickedness" is the refusal of the "pharaoh of the Exodus" to let the Hebrews go.
What definition can be given to the supposed "wickedness" of the "pharaoh of the exodus" who is supposedly not letting the Hebrews go Exodus 5:2, when the "pharaoh of the exodus" has his decision-making stripped from him by having the degree of softness of his heart (at the time they thought the heart was the center of decision-making, as does the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob...) remotely controlled?
So the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob is:
- Planning and executing the "bondage" of the Hebrews by using the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" to do it,
- Is stopping the "pharaoh of the exodus" from releasing them from their "bondage" by "hardening his heart",
Then,
Accusing the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" for the bondage, and
Accusing the "pharaoh of the exodus" for the non-release from the "bondage"...
Seriously?
There is no responsibility to be assigned to any of the pharaohs, since they were all the instruments of the presented Creator.
No responsibility, no "unrighteousness".
"Unrighteousness" remains undefined.
The objective here is only to find definitions for "unrighteousness" or "wickedness".
Of course the first issue is slavery, the ultimate "unrighteousness" of pharaoh.
But,
"Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not their's, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years; and also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and afterwards shall they come out with great substance...". Gen. 15:13
This can only mean one thing and one thing only;
The supposed slavery that our Hebrew ancestors suffered in Egypt for four hundred years was incontestably the will of the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob, and the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" who did that, was himself only the slave or the instrument of that will.
It can mean nothing else.
Can it mean God only seeing the future without being able to interfere?
Is the future fixed?
Even if He could interfere but did not since the Hebrews supposedly "had to" live that experience, it still makes Pharaoh the instrument of His will and the future fixed.
No need to remind you that we are in an apprehension of creation by design.
What happens now to the "ultimate unrighteousness" of the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" who was/were only the instrument of the will of the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob, who "designed" the "bondage" Himself?
The LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob had programmed it to happen.
It's not in this accusation of enslavement that we will find any definition for "unrighteousness".
Our quest for definitions continues.
The second candidate to "wickedness" is the refusal of the "pharaoh of the Exodus" to let the Hebrews go.
What definition can be given to the supposed "wickedness" of the "pharaoh of the exodus" who is supposedly not letting the Hebrews go Exodus 5:2, when the "pharaoh of the exodus" has his decision-making stripped from him by having the degree of softness of his heart (at the time they thought the heart was the center of decision-making, as does the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob...) remotely controlled?
So the LORD God of Abraham of Isaac and of Jacob is:
- Planning and executing the "bondage" of the Hebrews by using the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" to do it,
- Is stopping the "pharaoh of the exodus" from releasing them from their "bondage" by "hardening his heart",
Then,
Accusing the "pharaoh(s) of the bondage" for the bondage, and
Accusing the "pharaoh of the exodus" for the non-release from the "bondage"...
Seriously?
There is no responsibility to be assigned to any of the pharaohs, since they were all the instruments of the presented Creator.
No responsibility, no "unrighteousness".
"Unrighteousness" remains undefined.